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In mark 5:41, jesus speaks in aramaic as he resurrects a young girl “and eliakim the son of hilkiah, and shebna, and joah said to the chief of the cupbearers, please speak. Taking her by the hand he said to her, “talitha cumi,” which means, “little girl, i say to you, arise.” other translations ren.
Why does christ or nt writers sometimes use aramaic Explanation the greek septuagint uses a different greek word for aramaic Example mark 5:41 talitha cumi and he took the damsel by the hand, and said unto her, talitha cumi
Which is, being interpreted, damsel, i say unto thee, arise.
In a combination of aramaic and hebrew she may have said Bet sefer!, which being translated from aramaic and hebrew means, get up little girl The gospels support this view showing jesus using various aramaic terms Eloi eloi lama sabachthani (matthew 27:46
Historians, scientists, and social anthropologists largely agree that aramaic was the prevalent language in israel during jesus’ time. 41 taking the child by the hand, he said to her, 'talitha kum!' (which translated means, 'little girl, i say to you, get up!') Immediately the girl got up and began to walk, for she was twelve years old And immediately they were completely astounded
43and he gave them strict orders that no one should know about this …
I find it strange that we have the words of jesus talitha coum reported also in aramaic (siryiac), because there is no apparent reason to preserve the original language of exactly those words and not of the other ones, seemingly much more important from the point of view of their spiritual teaching, like those in verse 36 for example. And, ‘whoever reviles father or mother must surely die.’ I saw greek new testament data sets to download But wasn't sure that was the koine greek ancient text, do we have a copy of that available on the web somewhere for free
Answer i do not know how scholars will reconcile the issue, but my preliminary study favors “hebrew” to be the correct word to be used in acts 26:14 for the following reasons
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