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It was he who messed up everything By common use i mean, can i expect my It was him who messed up everything
What is the difference between these two sentences? I know there are different opinions on this issue For example, he is peter.
But he's an apple can be mistaken for he is an apple, while he has an apple might be intended
This rule doesn't work generally, therefore it can hardly be called a rule. The case of he/him should depend on other considerations, such as, the proper case after the linking verb, is It should be simply a matter of which is more correct, it is he or, it is him my latin education would have me pick the former But my knowledge of colloquial english tells me that the phrase, it was him, is commonly used.
2 to convert the statement he is from the usa Into a yes/no question, one moves the first auxiliary verb (is in this example All forms of be are auxiliaries) to a position before the subject noun phrase (he in this example), and adds a question intonation if speaking, or a question mark if writing So the result is is he from the usa?
And, when you use a conjunctive adverb,.
Grammatically, for he/she/it we use does or doesn't like in, he doesn't eat meat But these days i'm observing the usage of the above sentence (especially in american movies) like this, he don't eat meat So, after a lot of observations, i'm assuming that both usages are correct Why is it this is he rather than this is him
[duplicate] ask question asked 14 years, 3 months ago modified 14 years, 3 months ago Here's a vote for either him or me is right. back in 1964 in his classic article negation in english, edward klima proposed a rule to describe contemporary english The subjective forms of pronouns are used only for the unconjoined subjects of explicit finite verbs In your example, the subject of is is conjoined (or disjoined, if you like), so i and he are not appropriate
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